Physiology of Anesthesia
Autonomic Nervous System
AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM—1
1. What is the autonomic nervous system (ANS)?
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1. The peripheral nervous system consists of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) and is concerned with involuntary regulation of cardiac muscles, smooth muscle, and glandular/visceral functions throughout the body. Visceral reflexes occur at the subconscious level. The ANS is composed of both sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers.
2. What is the difference between efferent motor pathways of the somatic system and the ANS?
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2. The somatic system is composed of a single neuron between the central nervous system (CNS) and the effector organ or sensory organ. The ANS has two neurons connecting the CNS to the effector organ. The first neuron (preganglionic) originates within the CNS and synapses in the ANS ganglion. The second neuron (postganglion) transmits signal to the effector organ. The preganglionic neuron is myelinated whereas the postganglionic neuron is unmyelinated.
3. Where do the fibers of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) originate?
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3. The sympathetic nervous system (SNS) originates in the thoracolumbar spinal cord, the intermediolateral gray column of T1-12 and L1-3.
4. What are the special ganglia formed from the thoracic fibers?
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4. The T1-4/5 nerve roots constitute the superomedial cervical and cervicothoracic ganglia. The cervicothoracic ganglia are also called the stellate ganglia. These provide the sympathetic innervation of head, neck, upper extremities, heart, and lungs.
5. Where does the peripheral nervous system (PNS) originate?
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5. The fibers of the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) originate in the pre- and postganglionic neurons in the brainstem (cranial nerves III, VII, IX, X, and XI) and sacral segments (S2, 3, and 4) of the spinal cord.
6. What nerve makes up the majority of the PNS activity?
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6. The vagus nerve accounts for 75% of PNS activity. It supplies PNS innervation to the heart, lungs, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, proximal half of the colon, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, and upper portion of the ureters.
The sacral fibers (S2, 3, and 4) form the pelvic visceral nerves (nervi erigentes). These supply the rest of the viscera not supplied by the vagus: descending colon, rectum, uterus, bladder, and lower portion of the ureters.
7. Which fibers of the SNS release norepinephrine (NE)?
8. Name three ways in which the actions of NE can be terminated.
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8. Three ways in which NE is terminated are the following:
Reuptake in the presynaptic terminals (70%),
Extraneuronal uptake,
Diffusion.
9. Consider the synthesis of endogenous catecholamines:
tyrosine → dopa → dopamine → NE → epinephrine.
What is the rate-limiting step?
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9. The rate-limiting step of catecholamine synthesis is tyrosine hydroxylase conversion of tyrosine to dopa.
10. What drugs inhibit reuptake of NE?
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10. Drugs that inhibit reuptake of NE include cocaine and tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) → increased NE concentrations and accentuated receptor response.
AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM/SYMPATHETIC NERVOUS SYSTEM/PERIPHERAL NERVOUS SYSTEM
1. Where do the nerves of the SNS arise?
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1. The fibers of the SNS arise out of the intermediolateral gray column of the T1-12 and L1-3 nerve roots.
2. How many ganglia compose the paravertebral chain?
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2. The paravertebral chain comprises five ganglia: superomedial cervical, stellate (inferior) cervical, celiac, and inferior mesenteric ganglia.
3. Preganglionic sympathetic fibers release acetylcholine (ACh) as the neurotransmitter. Which two neurotransmitters do the different postganglionic fibers release?
4. How does SNS stimulation affect the following:
Salivary glands,
Gastrointestinal tract motility,
Liver,
Bronchial smooth muscle,
Pancreatic beta cell secretion?
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4. Sympathetic stimulation
Salivary glands: vasoconstriction, reduced secretion;
Gastrointestinal (GI) tract motility: decreased;
Liver: increased glycolysis and reduced gluconeogenesis;
Bronchial smooth muscle: relaxation;
Pancreatic beta cells: vasoconstriction, reduced secretion.
5. Parasympathetic nerves leave the central nervous system (CNS) through which cranial nerves?
6. Through which portion of the spinal cord do the parasympathetic nerves exit?
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6. The PNS exits the spinal cord through sacral nerve fibers (S2, 3, and 4) (the nervi erigentes).
7. Which cranial nerve contains the most parasympathetic nerve fibers?
8. Which organs are innervated by sacral parasympathetic nerves?
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8. The sacral parasympathetic nerves innervate the descending colon, rectum, uterus, lower ureters, bladder, and sexual reactions.
AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM—2
1. What is tocolysis? Which are the most commonly used drugs for tocolysis? What are the side effects of beta tocolysis? What are the contraindications to beta-tocolytic therapy?
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1. Tocolysis means inhibition of the uterine contractions of labor. The most commonly used drugs for tocolysis are opioids, magnesium sulfate, prostaglandin inhibitors, calcium channel blockers and beta-agonists. The side effects of beta tocolysis are tachycardia, hypotension, hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, cardiac dysrhythmias (including chest pain/ischemia), and pulmonary edema.
Contraindications to beta-tocolytic therapy include severe preeclampsia/eclampsia, intrauterine infection, maternal hyperthyroidism or cardiac disease, uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, significant vaginal bleeding, anemia, hypovolemia, and death in utero (DIU).
2. What is the mechanism of action of the xanthines? What are some of the xanthine drugs? What is the mechanism of action of the newer xanthines?
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2. The mechanism of action of the xanthines is nonspecific inhibition of all three types of phosphodiesterases (PDEs), resulting in increased cyclic adenosine monophosphate and beta response. Xanthine drugs are theophylline, caffeine, aminophylline, and amrinone lactate (Inocor). Amrinone selectively inhibits PDE III → impeded breakdown of calcium (Ca) stores → increased inotropism. It also promotes lusitropism (diastolic relaxation) and ventricular filling.
3. How does amrinone lactate (Inocor) affect cardiac function? Name three side effects.
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3. Amrinone increases the cardiac index, left ventricular stroke index, and left ventricular ejection fraction, while decreasing left ventricular end-diastolic pressure, pulmonary capillary wedge pressure, pulmonary arterial pressure, right atrial pressure, and systemic vascular resistance (SVR). Heart rate (HR) and mean arterial pressure (MAP) are not affected.
Amrinone is started as a 0.75 μg/kg bolus over 2 to 3 minutes, followed by maintenance infusion of 5 to 10 μg/kg/min. Care must be taken not to give the bolus too quickly, otherwise severe hypotension may develop. Two other uncommon side effects include dose-related thrombocytopenia and centrilobar hepatic necrosis.
4. What is the mechanism of action of digoxin (Lanoxin)? What are the common uses of digoxin? When should digoxin be considered for prophylactic preoperative administration?
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4. Digoxin blocks the sodium-potassium pump, facilitating calcium entry into myocardial cells. It is used mainly to treat congestive heart failure (CHF) and control supraventricular cardiac dysrhythmias. It may also benefit cardiomyopathies and cor pulmonale.
Indications for preoperative “digitalization” include previous CHF, increased heart size, coronary flow disturbances according to electrocardiogram (ECG), age >60, age >50 before lung surgery, anticipation of massive blood loss, atrial flutter, or atrial fibrillation, cardiovascular (CV) surgery, and rheumatic heart lesions.
5. What is the mechanism of action of monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)? Which substances will therefore accumulate? What are the symptoms of overdose? Which two drugs are influenced by administration of MAOIs? What are the current recommendations regarding MAOIs and elective general anesthesia? What is the treatment for MAOI overdose?
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5. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) block the deoxidative deamination of endogenous catecholamines into inactive metabolites. They do not inhibit synthesis. This causes accumulation of NE, epinephrine, dopamine, and serotonin. Overdose symptoms include hyperactivity/agitation, hallucinations, hyperpyrexia, convulsions, hypertension (HTN), and hypotension. Ephedrine produces an exaggerated response due to release of stored catecholamines. Meperidine (Demerol) has been reported to cause hypertensive crisis, convulsions, and coma. The MAOIs also intensify depression caused by ethanol, analgesics, and general anesthesia.
Current recommendation is to stop MAOIs 2 weeks before surgery; few adverse effects have been reported in patients taking MAOIs who undergo regional or opioid anesthesia. Overdose is treated with alpha-blockers, ganglionic blockers, or direct-acting vasodilators.
6. What is the mechanism of action of tricyclic antidepressants (TCA)s? Name some of the side effects of TCAs. Name some drugs that will potentiate the effects of TCAs. What are the recommendations for patients taking TCAs scheduled for general anesthesia?
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6. TCAs block uptake of NE into adrenergic nerve endings. Side effects include tachycardia, dysrhythmias, hypotension, myocardial infarction, and CHF. Neuroleptic drugs, sedatives, atropine sulfate, ketamine (Ketalar), and sodium thiopental (STP) potentiate the effects of TCAs. Discontinuation of TCAs is not necessary before surgery, but possible drug interactions must be considered intraoperatively.
DOPAMINE AND HISTAMINE RECEPTORS
1. Where are dopamine receptors found? What is the action?
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1. Dopamine receptors are presynaptic:
DA1: vascular smooth muscle; vasodilation of renal/mesenteric vessels;
DA2: vasodilation and inhibition of NE release.
Dopamine receptors have been found in the hypothalamus where they are involved in prolactin release and in the basal ganglia where they coordinate motor function. Dopamine also stimulates the chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla, producing nausea/vomiting.
Dopamine receptors have also been suggested in the GI tract: esophagus, stomach, and small intestine. (Metoclopramide [Reglan] promotes gastric emptying.)
2. What kinds of histamine receptors are there? What are the functions?
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2. There are two types of histamine receptors:
H1: bronchoconstriction, intestinal contraction, coronary spasm, negative dromotropic effect (dromotropic: influence on conduction/excitation);
H2: acid production by parietal cells of stomach, positive inotropic/chronotropic effects on myocardium that are not blocked by beta antagonism.
3. What is the mechanism of cellular response to the beta-receptor, that is, messengers, structure, and so on?
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3. The beta-receptor has three components: receptor, two G proteins (which bind guanine and regulate the interaction of protein with adenyl cyclase), and catalytic moiety of adenyl cyclase. The receptor is a bifunctional protein that sits on the superficial surface of the plasma membrane and interacts with a chemical messenger (catecholamine). This activates the G protein, which in turn activates adenyl cyclase in a cascade fashion, increasing cyclic adenosine monophosphate and protein kinase A, and finally intracellular calcium. The final mediator of beta-receptor stimulation in cardiac muscle is calcium. In addition, activation of sarcolemmal calcium transport systems may occur directly by beta-receptor stimulation.
4. How can the receptor response to a catecholamine be regulated?
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4. The receptor response to a catecholamine can be regulated by the following:
Concentration of catecholamine agonists,
Activity of PDE,
Factors affecting coupling of the receptor to the activated kinases,
Receptor numbers and binding affinity,
Calcium availability.
BARORECEPTORS
1. What is the effect of the Valsalva maneuver on intrathoracic pressures, ventricular rate (VR), cardiac output (CO), and blood pressure (BP)?
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1. The Valsalva maneuver increases intrathoracic pressure by forced expiration against a closed glottis. Blood pressure (BP) momentarily increases as intrathoracic blood is forced into the heart (increased preload). Sustained pressure decreases venous return (VR) and therefore cardiac output (CO) and BP → reflex vasoconstriction and tachycardia.
Dysfunction of the SNS is implicated if exaggerated and prolonged hypotension develops during Valsalva (>50% decrease from resting MAP).
2. What is the Bainbridge reflex? How does this correspond to spinal anesthesia and to cardiac accelerator nerves?
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2. Bainbridge reflex is a venous baroreceptor reflex by which reduced venous pressure reduces the HR. (Reduced arterial pressures cause a reflex tachycardia.) The venous receptors are proposed to be more dominant in the moment-to-moment regulation of CO. HR, like CO, can be adjusted to the quantity of blood entering the heart.
There is characteristic, paradoxical slowing of the heart seen with spinal anesthesia. Blockade of the SNS levels of T1-4 ablates the efferent limb of the cardiac accelerator nerves. (Therefore, unopposed vagus → bradycardia.) The primary defect in the development of spinal hypotension is a decrease in VR → bradycardia. Reflex tachycardia is the usual response to hypotension or acidosis from other causes.
3. If a transplanted heart develops bradycardia, what is the drug of choice and why?
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3. The drug of choice for bradycardia in the transplanted heart is isoproterenol, not atropine. Isoproterenol increases the discharge rate of the donor sinoatrial (SA) node by direct action (beta-adrenergic stimulation). There is no result from atropine in the denervated heart.
GANGLIONIC BLOCKERS
1. How do ganglionic blockers produce their effects?
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1. Ganglionic blockers interfere with neurotransmission at ANS ganglia. They produce their nicotinic effects by competing, mimicking, or interfering with ACh metabolism.
2. Which type of receptor does d-tubocurarine (DTC) block? Where is the block by DTC most evident?
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2. d–Tubocurarine (DTC) produces a competitive nondepolarizing block of both motor endplates and ANS ganglia (nicotinic cholinergic receptors).
3. What are the two mechanisms by which DTC causes hypotension?