Cardiac Anesthesia
Cardiac Anatomy and Physiology
CARDIOVASCULAR ANATOMY
1. Where is the sinoatrial (SA) node located?
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1. The SA node is located at the junction of the superior vena cava (SVC) and right atrium (RA).
2. How does left atrial enlargement appear on a chest x-ray?
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2. Enlargement of the left atrium (LA) on chest x-ray appears as follows:
Straightening of the left heart border,
Double density near the right heart border, or
Displacement of the left mainstem bronchus.
3. What are the first three major branches of the aorta?
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3. The first three major branches of the aorta are listed:
Innominate artery,
Left common carotid artery,
Left subclavian artery.
The innominate divides into the right subclavian and carotid arteries.
4. From where do the coronary arteries arise? What are the electrocardiogram (ECG) changes associated with occlusion of the anterior descending artery and of the circumflex artery? What are the two main branches of the right coronary artery?
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4. The two coronary arteries originate from the sinuses of Valsalva in the aortic valve. Occlusion in the anterior descending branch produces ischemic electrocardiogram (ECG) changes in leads V3 to V5. Circumflex occlusion is seen in leads I and aVL. Two main branches of the right coronary artery (RCA) are the sinus node artery and the atrioventricular (AV) nodal artery.
5. What is the blood supply for the atrioventricular (AV) node?
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5. The blood supply to the AV node and common bundle of His is the AV branch of the RCA (90% of hearts) and the septal perforators of the left anterior descending coronary artery (10% of patients).
6. What ECG changes are associated with right coronary artery occlusion?
7. What are the abdominal branches of the aorta? What are the branches of the femoral artery?
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7. The abdominal branches of the aorta include the following:
Superior mesenteric artery,
Inferior mesenteric artery,
Celiac artery.
The kidneys receive 20% of cardiac output (CO) from a single renal artery. The aorta bifurcates into right and left iliac arteries in the lower torso. At the level of the inguinal ligament the iliacs bifurcate into the superficial (profunda) femoral artery and the deep femoral artery. Just below the knee, the femoral artery divides into the anterior and posterior tibial arteries.
8. What is the blood supply to the spinal cord and to the liver?
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8. The blood supply to the spinal cord consists of the anterior spinal arteries (75%) (from the vertebral arteries) and posterior spinal artery (25%) (from the terminal portion of the anterior spinal artery). There are also several radicular branches (from the intercostal and lumbar arteries) that anastomose with the anterior spinal artery. The largest of these is called the arteria radicularis magna (artery of Adamkiewicz) in the lower thoracic/upper lumbar region.
The liver is supplied by both the hepatic artery (25% of CO) and the portal vein. The portal vein supplies 65% to 80% of the total hepatic blood flow.
9. Which three blood flows contribute to arteriovenous shunt?
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9. Thebesian, bronchial, and pleural venous flows contribute the normal 1% to 3% of arteriovenous shunt.
CARDIAC ANATOMY
1. Where is the AV node located?
2. What is the origin of the sympathetic innervation to the heart? What are the three major sympathetic nerves? What is the stimulation that results from sympathetic release of acetylcholine?
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2. The sympathetic innervation to the heart and blood vessels comes from the thoracolumbar region; the three major nerves from the stellate and middle cervical ganglia are listed here:
Stellate cardiopulmonary nerve,
Dorsal cardiopulmonary nerves,
Right dorsolateral and dorsomedial cardiopulmonary nerves.
The end result of sympathetic stimulation is beta-1-adrenergic receptor activation.
3. What is the origin of parasympathetic innervation?
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3. The parasympathetic neurons arise in the cervical region and from the medulla oblongata and the nucleus ambiguus. These fibers from the latter two enter the thorax as branches from the recurrent laryngeal and thoracic vagus nerves (the motor efferents).
4. Where is the origin of the innervation of the peripheral circulation? What is the result of stimulation of alpha-adrenergic fibers and of beta-2-adrenergic fibers?
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4. The innervation of the peripheral circulation originates from the thoracolumbar sympathetic fibers. Alpha-adrenergic stimulation causes constriction in the arterial vascular beds of the skin, skeletal muscle, splanchnic organs, kidneys, and systemic veins. Beta-2-receptor stimulation dilates systemic veins and arteries of the muscle, splanchnic, and renal circulations.
5. Is oxygen (O2) saturation higher in the inferior vena cava (IVC) or in the superior vena cava (SVC)? Why?
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5. Oxygen (O2) saturation (SaO2) is greater in the inferior vena cava than in the SVC because of the contribution of blood from the renal veins.
6. What is the maximum amount of injected contrast that should be administered? Why?
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6. The total amount of contrast should not exceed 5 mL/kg because contrast media are hyperosmolar substances that depress the myocardium, dilate the coronary arteries, decrease blood pH, increase serum osmolarity, and cause allergic reactions.
7. When does ventricular systole occur in relation to the ECG?
8. Name some of the ECG changes seen during coronary angiography.
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8. Coronary arteriography occasionally causes ventricular ectopy, asystole, or fibrillation. Injection in the RCA produces T-wave inversion in lead II, and injection in the left coronary artery (LCA) produces a peaked T wave in lead II.
CARDIAC PHYSIOLOGY
1. What does the Fick equation measure? How is the O2 content calculated?
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1. The Fick equation measures O2 consumption by measuring the arteriovenous O2 concentration difference (× CO × 100). Arterial and mixed-venous O2 contents are calculated using (0.00031 × PO2) + (1.34 × Hgb × SaO2%)
2. What factors contribute to inaccuracy of the thermodilution cardiac output?
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2. Thermodilution outputs are subject to inaccuracies because of the following:
Wandering baselines,
Improper volume or speed of injection,
Pulmonary catheters placed too peripherally.
3. To what do the v wave and the y wave on the venous pressure tracing correspond?
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3. The v wave on the venous pressure tracing corresponds to the gradual increase in atrial blood volume as blood returns from the periphery. It crests when the atria are filled, and the tricuspid and mitral valves open to initiate ventricular filling.
The y wave results from the opening of the AV valves combined with ventricular relaxation.
4. What is the effect of atrial fibrillation on atrial pressures and ventricular filling?
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4. Acute atrial fibrillation (AF) increases atrial pressures, reduces atrial compliance, increases atrial O2 consumption, and eliminates the contribution of the atria to ventricular filling (there is no a wave on the venous pressure tracing).
5. What causes the S3 and the S4 sounds?
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5. An S3 heart sound occurs at the point of transition from rapid ventricular filling to reduced ventricular filling. An S4, which occurs 0.04 second after the P wave, results from the vibrations of the left ventricular (LV) muscle and mitral valve. It is most likely to occur with vigorous atrial contraction.
6. What is the c wave on the venous pressure tracing?
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6. The c wave marks the isovolumetric phase of ventricular contraction. It is the period between closure of the AV valves and opening of the semilunar (aortopulmonary) valves. These valves open at the summit of the c wave.
7. What causes the S1 and the S2 sound?
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7. S1 notes the closure of the AV valves. Since right ventricular (RV) and LV contractions are normally slightly asynchronous, S1 is usually split. S2 results from rapid deceleration of blood, causing vibration of the outflow tracks and great vessels and closure of the semilunar valves.
CARDIAC ELECTROPHYSIOLOGY
1. In automatic cells such as those in the SA and AV nodes, when does spontaneous depolarization occur? Which factors affect the rate of the automatic cell?
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1. In automatic cells of the SA and AV nodes, slow, spontaneous depolarization occurs during phase 4. The rate of automatic cells depends on the following:
Slope of phase 4 depolarization,
Maximum level of resting membrane potential achieved at the end of repolarization,
Threshold potential.
Other factors include decrease or increase in the resting membrane potential, hypothermia, hypoxia, and ischemia.
2. Does the sympathetic or parasympathetic system predominate in the heart? What is the effect?
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2. The inhibitory parasympathetic system usually predominates in the heart over the sympathetic system. Parasympathetic stimulation (particularly of the right vagus nerve) decreases heart rate (HR) by slowing the SA node and tends to suppress ventricular automaticity. It may facilitate termination of ventricular dysrhythmias.
3. What are the effects of the beta-1 and beta-2 receptors in the heart? How does norepinephrine (NE) affect contractility?
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3. Effects of receptors in the heart include the following:
Beta-1: positive inotropic, chronotropic, and lusinotropic effects by stimulation of adenyl cyclase;
Beta-2: increased HR and contractility.
The effects of norepinephrine (NE) on contractility are mediated by calcium.
4. What are the types of ventricular receptors in the heart?
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4. Types of ventricular receptors in the heart include the following:
Pressure-sensitive coronary baroreceptors,
Mechanoreceptors (innervated by vagal afferent fibers), and
Sympathetic mechanosensitive or chemosensitive receptors.
5. When does the majority of left coronary artery flow or the right coronary artery flow occur?
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5. The majority of LCA flow occurs during diastole. In the RCA, the majority of flow occurs during both systole and diastole because intramyocardial pressure is lower in the thinner RV.
6. How can myocardial O2 be increased? What is the normal myocardial PO2?
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6. O2 extraction in the heart cannot be increased further; therefore, coronary flow must increase if the heart requires additional O2. Coronary venous blood is only 30% saturated, with a PO2 of 18 to 20 mm Hg.
7. Over what perfusion pressure is coronary blood flow autoregulated?
CARDIAC OUTPUT—I
1. Which factors affect coronary autoregulation?
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1. Factors affecting coronary autoregulation include myocardial O2, coronary venous O2, decreased HR, pharmacologic coronary constriction, metabolic regulators (e.g., adenosine), O2, potassium, pH, carbon dioxide (CO2), endothelium-derived relaxing factor, prostaglandins, prostacyclin, histamine, and adenosine triphosphate.
2. What is coronary flow reserve? Which factors decrease coronary reserve flow?
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2. Coronary flow reserve is the difference between resting and maximal coronary flow. It can be decreased by decreased maximal flow or increased regulated coronary flow.
3. What is coronary steal?
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3. Arteriolar vasodilation occurs in the face of coronary artery stenosis to maintain flow at normal levels. Once the vasodilator reserve is exhausted (stenosis >90%), an increase in stenosis will decrease flow. Coronary steal occurs when a vasodilator is administered to a vascular bed supplied by both a normal and a stenosed artery connected by collaterals. The vasodilator will dilate the normal arterioles but will produce little change in arterioles served by the stenotic artery because they are already maximally dilated. Blood will be “stolen” from the ischemic area to perfuse the dilated normal arterioles.
4. How does sympathetic stimulation affect coronary blood flow?
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4. Sympathetic stimulation causes coronary dilatation as a result of the metabolic factors produced by increased myocardial O2 demand (MVO2) and direct beta-receptor stimulation.
5. What is cardiac output? What factors affect it?
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5. CO is the volume of blood pumped by the heart each minute: CO = HR × stroke volume (SV). CO increases with increased HR, preload or contractility, and with decreased afterload. CO is decreased by decreased HR, contractility, or preload and increased afterload. CO is also affected by ventricular compliance.
6. What is preload? Which factors affect it? What is stroke volume?
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6. Preload can be defined as all of the factors that contribute to passive ventricular wall stress (or tension) at the end of diastole. Determinants of preload include the following:
Blood volume,
Venous tone,
Ventricular compliance,
Ventricular afterload,
Myocardial contractility, and
Distribution of blood between the intra- and extrathoracic compartments.
SV is the difference between the ventricular end-diastolic volume (EDV) and the endsystolic volume (ESV).
7. What is afterload? Which factors affect it? What value approximates afterload? What causes it to be over- or underestimated?
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7. Afterload is all the factors that contribute to total myocardial wall stress (or tension) during systolic ejection. It depends upon the following:
Shape, radius, and wall thickness of the ventricle;
Arterial wall stiffness (aortic);
Blood viscosity;
Mass of blood in the aorta.
Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is frequently used to approximate afterload. SVR underestimates afterload when afterload is increased or decreased or contractility is improved.
CARDIAC OUTPUT—II
1. Name four mechanisms to increase cardiac output.
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1. CO can be increased by the following:
Increased load: either volume or pressure;
Anrep effect: the functional effect in that the increased inotropy partially compensates for the increased ESV and decreased SV caused by an increase in afterload (more rapid activation of the contractile process);
Treppe (staircase) phenomenon: a graduated increase in contractility with an increase in HR; or
Change in inotropic state.
2. What factors decrease contractility?
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2. Contractility is decreased by the following:
Hypoxia,
Acidosis,
Cardiomyopathy,
Myocardial ischemia or infarction,
Drugs such as calcium channel or beta-blockers.
3. What is compliance?
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3. Compliance is the ability of a blood vessel or a cardiac chamber to change its volume in response to changes in pressure.
4. What is Starling’s law? How is the Starling curve affected by increased preload? At what filling pressures does peak ventricular output occur?
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4. According to Starling’s law, contractility depends on muscle fiber length. Increased preload or initial fiber length leads to increased resting tension, velocity of tension development, and peak tension. An increased venous return stretches muscle fibers to increase contractility and improve CO. Peak ventricular output occurs at normal filling pressures of approximately 10 mm Hg.
5. Why is the pressure-volume loop a more accurate index of contractility than the Starling curve? What values can be determined with the pressure-volume loop?
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5. Pressure-volume loops are a more accurate index of contractility and compliance because they are less affected by preload, afterload, or other conditions; performance is difficult to measure and not immediately available for patient care. The values that can be determined from the pressure-volume loop include the following:
Stroke work,
Cardiac work,
Contractility,
Compliance.
6. How are pressure-length loops plotted? What factors can alter pressure-length loops?
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6. In pressure-length loops, ventricular segment length is plotted on the x-axis and ventricular pressure on the y-axis. They have four segments:
Isovolumic contraction (right),
Ejection (top),
Isovolumic relaxation (left),
Filling (bottom).
These loops are altered by changes in preload, afterload, and inotropic state and by ischemia.
7. What do force-velocity curves evaluate?
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7. Force-velocity curves are sensitive evaluators of contractility that ultimately demonstrate that there is an inverse relationship between shortening velocity and afterload. A passively stretched muscle is stimulated to contract against either no load or an afterload, which is measured as the tension that develops.
MYOCARDIAL METABOLISM
1. What is the energy supply of the heart during fasting and postprandially?
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1. Myocardial metabolism includes both substrate utilization and O2 consumption. The energy supply of the heart is derived primarily from fatty acids and carbohydrates (lactate). During fasting, energy is derived from fatty acids, and postprandially from glucose (glucose is used only during high glucose levels, insulin secretion, or hypoxia).
2. What is basal metabolic O2 consumption? Which area of the heart requires more O2? Which factors determine mixed-venous O2 saturation? Which factor consumes most of mixed-venous O2 saturation?
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2. Myocardial O2 consumption at rest is 8 to 10 mL/100 g myocardium per minute. The subendocardium requires approximately 20% more O2 than the epicardium; therefore, it is more vulnerable to ischemia. Myocardial O2 consumption is determined by the following:
HR,
Wall tension, and
Myocardial contractility.
Less important factors include O2 costs of shortening muscle fibers, electrical activation, catecholamines, basal O2 requirements, and level of arterial oxygenation.
3. What are the components of wall tension?
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3. Wall-tension components include the following:
Rate of force development,
Magnitude of force development,
Interval during which force is generated and maintained for each contraction, and
Frequency with which force is developed per unit time.
4. Which factors contribute to myocardial O2 supply? Which factors affect arterial O2 content?
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4. Myocardial O2 supply depends on the following:
Diameter of coronary arteries,
Left ventricular end-diastolic pressure (LVEDP),
Aortic diastolic pressure, and
Arterial O2 content.
O2 content is due to PaO2, hemoglobin, and 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG), as well as pH, PCO2, or temperature effects on the oxy-hemoglobin dissociation curve.
5. What is coronary perfusion pressure? When is the relationship not applicable?
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5. Coronary perfusion pressure is the difference between the aortic diastolic pressure and the LVEDP. This relationship does not hold in coronary occlusive disease because the pressure distal to a coronary stenosis is lower than the aortic diastolic pressure.
6. What is normal O2 extraction? Can this be increased?
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6. Normal O2 extraction by the heart is 60% to 70% (it changes very little with increased cardiac work due to decreases in coronary vascular resistance). If the coronary vascular response is limited, O2 extraction can be increased to >90%. An increase in O2 extraction and coronary vasodilation constitutes the metabolic reserve of the heart during increased demand.
7. What is the distribution of cardiac output? Which organ circulations can autoregulate?
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7. The CO is distributed to the following organs:
• Liver | 24% |
• Muscle | 23% |
• Kidneys | 20% |
• Brain | 12%-15% |
• Intestines | 8% |
• Skin | 6% |
• Heart | 4% |
The organ circulations that autoregulate (maintain a constant blood flow) include cerebral, renal, coronary, hepatic arterial, intestinal, and muscle vascular beds.
CARDIOVASCULAR REFLEXES
1. What is the carotid sinus reflex?
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1. The carotid sinus reflex (pressoreceptor/baroreceptor reflex) occurs when an increase in blood pressure (BP) stretches pressoreceptors in the carotid sinus or arch of the aorta to increase their frequency of discharge, which increases parasympathetic activity (decreased sympathetic activity). This leads to decreased cardiac contractility, HR, and vasoconstrictor tone.
2. What is the effect of the Valsalva maneuver?
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2. The Valsalva maneuver can be used to assess autonomic reflex control of cardiovascular function. It is a forced expiration against a closed glottis, holding this for at least 10 seconds. It decreases venous return to the right ventricle, which causes a decreased CO and BP, with a reflex increase in HR. With glottic opening, venous return suddenly increases and elicits the pressoreceptor response to produce transient bradycardia.
3. What are the effects of the Bezold-Jarisch reflex? What is it caused by?
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3. The Bezold-Jarisch reflex causes hypotension, bradycardia, and parasympathetically induced coronary vasodilation in response to noxious stimuli to the ventricular wall.
4. What is Cushing’s reflex?
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4. Cushing’s reflex is severe hypertension associated with reflex bradycardia to maintain perfusion of (or reperfuse) the brain. Increases in intracranial pressure compress the cerebral arteries, causing cerebral ischemia and resultant increased sympathetic activity. The increased sympathetic activity leads to severe peripheral vasoconstriction. The ensuing hypertension is associated with a reflex bradycardia.
5. What is the Bainbridge reflex? How is it mediated? What is the effect of global atrial distention?
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5. The Bainbridge reflex causes an increased HR when vagal tone is high and the RA or central veins are distended. It is primarily mediated through vagal myelinated fibers. Global atrial distention in response to high pressures causes bradycardia, hypotension, and decreased SVR.
6. Where are the peripheral chemoreceptors located? What are the effects of stimulation?
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6. Peripheral chemoreceptors are located in the carotid and aortic bodies and are sensitive to decreasing O2 tension or increased hydrogen ion concentrations. The effects of stimulation of the carotid bodies are increased pulmonary ventilation and BP while HR is decreased. Stimulation of the aortic bodies causes tachycardia.
7. What is the effect of the oculocardiac reflex? Which muscle stimulates this reflex? Which ganglia are involved?
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7. The oculocardiac reflex is caused by traction or pressure on the globe, leading to bradycardia and hypotension. Traction on the medial rectus muscle is likely to elicit this reflex, involving the ciliary ganglion through the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve through the gasserian ganglion. It is usually abolished by cessation of the stimulating event, and attenuated by intravenous atropine administration.
8. Which nerve is involved in the celiac reflex? What is the result?
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8. The celiac reflex stimulates afferent vagal nerve endings to cause bradycardia, apnea, and hypotension (vasovagal reflex).
PERIPHERAL CIRCULATORY PHYSIOLOGY
1. What causes the arterial pulse waveform? How do the blood pressure values change from the central to the peripheral circulation? Why?
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1. The arterial pulse waveform is the result of the combined effects of the forward-propagating pressure wave and its reflectance back toward the heart from various parts of the vasculature. Systolic pressure is higher, whereas mean and diastolic pressures are slightly lower in the periphery. The contour of the pressure wave depends on the velocity of the pressure wave, the duration of the pulse, and the length of the tube.
2. How is mean pressure calculated? Which pressure value remains constant through the central and peripheral circulation? What is the effect of respiration on arterial pressure?
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2. Mean BP is
DBP + (SBP-DBP/3)
Mean BP remains constant, while pulse and SBP increase peripherally. BP decreases by <6 mm Hg with respiration because pulmonary venous capacitance increases during inspiration to a greater extent than the increase in right-sided heart venous return and output, causing a decrease in LV stroke output and pressure.
3. Which factors control blood pressure and peripheral vascular tone?
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3. Factors controlling BP and peripheral vascular tone include the following:
Central and autonomic nervous system function,
CO,
SVR,
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH),
Catecholamines,
Renin-angiotensin system,
Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF), and
Brain natriuretic peptide.
Brain natriuretic peptide, related to ANF, is a hormone secreted specifically by the left ventricular myocytes. Its concentration is correlated with the severity of symptomatic or asymptomatic left ventricular dysfunction.
4. What are the effects of endothelium-derived relaxing factor? How is it mediated? What does this factor appear to be?
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4. Endothelium-derived relaxing factor causes relaxation of vascular smooth muscle and inhibits platelet adhesion and aggregation. It activates soluble guanylate cyclase to increase intracellular cyclic guanosine monophosphate. Endothelium-derived relaxing factor is nitric oxide.
5. What causes release of atrial natriuretic factor (ANF)? What are its effects? In which disease states is ANF increased?
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5. ANF is released in response to increased vascular volume (atrial distention), epinephrine, vasopressin, acetylcholine, morphine, and increased atrial pressure.
Effects of ANF include the following:
Vasodilation,
Suppression of ADH,
Inhibition of aldosterone release,
Direct renal effects such as increased glomerular filtration rate, natriuresis, and diuresis.
ANF is increased in congestive heart failure (CHF) and atrial tachydysrhythmias.