Board Simulation: Neurology



Board Simulation: Neurology


Bruce H. Cohen



QUESTIONS



1. A 4-year-old boy is being evaluated for developmental delay. His parents describe him as a very slow feeder who often choked on his bottle. He did not stand until he was 18 months old and took his first steps at 24 months of age. He is now beginning to place two words together and has a vocabulary of 50 words. His examination is significant for moderate hypotonia and obesity. His mother states he has a voracious appetite. Which of the following laboratory tests would most likely confirm the diagnosis?


a) Routine chromosome testing


b) Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) study for subtelomeric rearrangements


c) FISH testing of the 15q11.2-q13 region


d) MECP2 gene sequencing


e) Lactic acid level

View Answer

Answer

The answer is c. This child has Prader-Willi Syndrome (PWS). Infants with PWS are often hypotonic and may have difficulty gaining weight because of slow feeding. Their neurocognitive development is slow and most children ultimately do not achieve normal intelligence. Obesity caused by uncontrolled hunger is frequent. These children are often growth hormone deficient and have hypogonadism. The FISH test of the 15q11.2-q13 region detects most children with PWS. However, a specific methylation DNA test does exist that detects those children who inherit the condition as a result of parental disomy, and should be obtained in those children who fit the clinical phenotype for PWS but have normal FISH evaluations. Routine chromosomal testing will be normal in PWS, and although it is not “wrong” to order this test as part of the evaluation of a syndromic developmentally delayed child, it is not the best answer. Deletions
and rearrangements in the subtelomeric regions of the chromosomes are associated with syndromic mental retardation but again, is not a test that detects PWS. Mutations in the MECP2 gene are the cause of Rett syndrome. Elevated lactic acid levels are indicative of many different disorders and are not helpful or specific in detecting PWS.



2. A 4-year-old boy is being evaluated for unilateral blindness due to an optic glioma. On examination, a dozen café au hit macules measuring >1.5 cm in diameter and freckling in the axilla and inguinal regions are noted. It is noted that his father also has dozens of café au hit macules as well as freckling in the axilla and inguinal regions. His mother’s examination is normal. The risk for each subsequent child of this couple to have the same disorder is:


a) One fourth because the disorder is autosomal dominant


b) Half because the disorder is autosomal dominant


c) One fourth because the disorder is autosomal recessive


d) Half because the disorder is autosomal recessive


e) There is a minimal risk because the mother is normal

View Answer

Answer

The answer is b. This child has NF1, which is an autosomal-dominant disorder. The incidence of NF1 is approximately 1 in 4000 individuals, and this incidence does not vary across ethnic groups. Mutations in the NF1 gene located on the 17th chromosome are responsible for the disease, but there is no one specific mutation that causes the disease; dozens of mutations have been described. Approximately one half of affected individuals inherit the gene from an affected parent, whereas the other half develops the mutation as a result of a spontaneous mutation. Regardless, if one parent has the mutation, the risk with each pregnancy is half, as this is an autosomal-dominant disorder.



3. A 7-year-old girl is being evaluated for repetitive episodes of vomiting, which have required eight prior hospitalizations for intravenous rehydration. Her examination in your office is normal. She had a brother who died at 3 days of life, and the coroner ruled that the death was a result of sudden infant death syndrome. The most likely laboratory abnormalities that would be noted during the next exacerbation would be:


a) Elevated blood ammonia level with low blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels


b) Elevated blood and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) glycine levels


c) Low CSF glucose with normal blood glucose


d) Normal blood glucose level with no urine ketones


e) Elevated blood glucose level with no urine ketones

View Answer

Answer

The answer is a. This girl is affected with the X-linked disorder ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency. This enzyme is one of the urea acid cycle enzymes. In boys, the defect is lethal at an early age, but because girls have two X chromosomes, the relative deficiency of this enzyme can present as intermittent hyperammonemia, with vomiting as a key feature, especially during viral illnesses. It is important to remember that “BUN” means simply “urea level” and the BUN will be low in all urea acid cycle defects and in the organic acidurias, which inhibit the urea acid cycle. (If you see a dehydrated and ill-appearing child with a BUN of 0, 1, 2, or 3, think of ordering an ammonia level test.) Elevated glycine levels can occur in nonketotic hyperglycinemia, which usually presents as a catastrophic seizure disorder in infancy. Low CSF glucose in the context of an acellular CSF occurring in an infant with seizures is a clue for glucose transport disorder.



4. Which of the following clinical features is not part of the migraine spectrum in children?


a) Headache


b) Transient visual loss


c) Abdominal pain, cramping, and vomiting


d) Olfactory hallucinations


e) Relief of symptoms with sleep

View Answer

Answer

The answer is d. Olfactory hallucinations are most often caused by seizures originating in the lower portion of the frontal lobes. Children will describe the event as a horrible smell, like a skunk or burnt rubber. Such a symptom should indicate to the physician a structural abnormality in the brain and warrants MRI testing. The other symptoms are among the most common features of pediatric migraine, which is reported to occur in approximately 5% of all children.



5. An 8-year-old boy was playing with friends when it was noted that he was lying unconscious. Neighbors called 9-1-1 and he began to return to consciousness when the ambulance squad arrived. No shaking movements were noted by the adults at the scene and the playmates offered no clues as to what happened, except to say that he was fine one minute and found lying on the ground the next. His neurologic examination was normal, as were magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain and an electroencephalograph (EEG). Because of the severe nature of the event, it was decided to treat him with an anticonvulsant. Over the next year there were four similar events, all occurring while seemingly having a good time playing with other children. His anticonvulsant levels were normal. Apart from falling asleep in school, which has resulted in poor progress at school, he was a normal and well-adjusted child. His mother reports that he is in bed promptly by 8:30 p.m. and sleeps
until she awakens him at 6:30 a.m. Which of the following would be the next best step in the evaluation?


a) Prolonged (96-hour) EEG


b) Psychology referral


c) Social service evaluation


d) Polysomnogram (PSG) and multiple sleep latency test (MSLT)


e) Urine and blood toxin screening

View Answer

Answer

The answer is d. This boy is affected with both narcolepsy (the sudden onset of sleep at inappropriate times) and cataplexy (sudden onset of sleep initiated by laughter, fear, or surprise). Simple narcolepsy occurs in approximately 1:1000 individuals, although cataplexy is a rare form of the illness. Individuals with narcolepsy often have other sleep disorders, such as hypnagogic hallucinations—vivid, realistic, and often frightening dreams; and sleep paralysis—temporary inability to move, which occurs upon awakening from sleep. The polysomnogram (sleep study) offers an analysis of the efficiency of sleep, to make sure the child does not have sleep apnea or other sleep disorders. The MSLT provides a systematic analysis of how quickly the child falls asleep after a “good night’s sleep.” Treatment with psychostimulants is often effective. Sleep disorders in children are underdiagnosed and can only be evaluated and treated if they are considered in the differential diagnosis.



6. An 8-year-old girl is being evaluated for her poor performance at school. Her teachers wish to hold her back. On examination she is clearly distractible and inattentive. Her weight is less than the third percentile for age, although her height is at the 50th percentile. She has very little muscle bulk and her facial muscles are especially thin. Her father has a similar appearance and was not able to finish high school because of academic issues but has maintained full-time employment as a cashier at the airport bookshop. The father is affected by what he calls hand cramps, which occur whenever he grips an object tightly. Which of the following would best explain the child’s medical condition?


a) Attention deficit disorder without hyperactivity


b) Attention deficit disorder with hyperactivity


c) Central core disease


d) Myotonic dystrophy


e) Poor nutrition

View Answer

Answer

The answer is d. Myotonic dystrophy is an autosomaldominant disorder that is caused by a trinucleotide repeat, meaning that the condition can worsen with successive generations. Individuals with this condition have very poor muscle bulk and have a thin hatchet-like face. Cognitive delays are common, but not universal, and it is not uncommon for older family members to have escaped diagnosis. The myopathy is also variable, but a common feature is myotonia—an abnormal sustained contraction of muscle groups when the muscle is contracted. This causes difficultly releasing the handgrip when shaking hands or turning a doorknob. Early balding, cataracts, diabetes mellitus, hypothyroidism, and cardiac conduction defects can also be part of this condition. Central core disease is another autosomaldominant muscle disease that causes thin facies and mild weakness, but intelligence is normal. Although attention deficits are often part of myotonic dystrophy, the family history and abnormal neurologic examination should clue the doctor into thinking further than the obvious presenting complaint. Despite the fact that the child is underweight, there is nothing in the history to suggest malnutrition.



7. An infant is born at term to a 35-year-old woman. The pregnancy was perfectly normal and the child was monitored during labor with a normal tracing. The delivery was normal, and the child was nondysmorphic with a normal birth weight, length, and head circumference. The child had poor respiratory effort and hypotonia that did not improve with bagging, and the infant required endotracheal intubation. Arterial blood gases were normal and an emergency head ultrasonography was normal. Aside from the hypotonia, the child looked alert and attentive. After examining the infant and drawing blood for necessary laboratory tests, you went to talk with the parents, who were obviously upset by the events. Upon entering the room you noted that the mother was sobbing and shaking because she was so upset, and also that she had a very thin face and difficulty relaxing her hand after you had shaken it, so that your hand remained “stuck” in her grip. The most likely explanation of the situation is:


a) Neonatal sepsis


b) Prader-Willi syndrome (PWS)


c) Birth anoxia


d) Leigh syndrome


e) Myotonic dystrophy

View Answer

Answer

The answer is e. Infants of women with myotonic dystrophy who also are affected by disease (the 50% that inherit the gene defect) can present in the delivery room with severe hypotonia, to the point that intubation and ventilation are required. The only treatment is supportive care and over time the infant will likely gain enough strength to be self-sufficient. Sepsis should be considered in this situation. There are infants with PWS who are profoundly hypotonic at birth, but the mother’s examination in this scenario suggests myotonic dystrophy. There is no suggestion that birth anoxia plays any role in this case. Leigh syndrome, which does not present in the delivery room, is a progressive disorder marked by seemingly normal development followed by stepwise
neurologic decline and respiratory failure resulting from disorders of energy metabolism.



8. A 4-month-old infant girl is brought in by her parents with the chief complaint of lethargy. She is a breast-fed infant and until a week ago was a good feeder, but has become increasingly disinterested in feeding. Her mother noted that constipation has also developed over the last few days and even use of a glycerin suppository was not effective. On examination, the child has normal vital signs, although she seems to be using her abdominal muscles to assist in breathing. She seems very alert and attentive, but has a distinctly weak cry when you draw her blood sample. Her abdomen is distended and bowel sounds are absent. Her pupils do not react to light, she is hypotonic and muscle stretch reflexes are absent. Her illness is most likely a result of:


a) Spinal muscular atrophy (Werdnig-Hoffman syndrome)


b) Infantile botulism


c) Sepsis


d) Intussusception


e) Nonaccidental trauma

View Answer

Answer

The answer is b. This clinical picture is most consistent with infantile botulism. Ingestion of the botulinum spore (found in honey or the dirt of certain regions) can result in this illness. Approximately 90% of reported cases in the United States are from California, Utah, and southeast Pennsylvania, likely because of high concentrations of Clostridium botulinum spores in the soil of these regions. This disorder usually presents before the first birthday in a previously healthy child. Subacute weakness and constipation are the key features, with a preserved mental status. Although the child may appear lethargic, she is in fact quite alert but simply too weak to move because the toxin affects the neuromuscular junction. Treatment is supportive, although botulinum immune globulin has been used to shorten the course of the illness. The presentation of the weakness in spinal muscular atrophy is more chronic and the constipation is not a key feature, but this is a good thought and should be kept in mind. Also, the papillary light reflex is normal in spinal muscular atrophy but not in infantile botulism. This case is not the typical clinical presentation of sepsis or nonaccidental trauma. Infants with intussusception may have altered mental status but they are not hypotonic.



9. A 17-year-old girl had a brief loss of consciousness after striking her head on the cement, when she fell off a motor scooter while not wearing a helmet. The computed tomograph (CT) scan of the brain taken at the time of the accident was normal and she was observed overnight in the hospital. On the morning of hospital discharge she was upset because she learned that she was grounded for 3 months for disobeying her parent’s rule not to ride her boyfriend’s motor scooter. Three weeks later she is complaining of headaches, difficulty concentrating in school, and feeling dizzy all the time. Her neurologic examination is normal. Which of the following offers the best explanation for her situation?


a) Delayed subdural hemorrhage


b) Trauma-triggered migraine disorder


c) Postconcussive syndrome


d) Conversion disorder


e) Partial complex seizures

View Answer

Answer

The answer is c. This scenario is most consistent with a postconcussive syndrome. The pathophysiology of this disorder, which tends to follow relatively mild head trauma and concussions, is not understood. Within a few weeks of the injury, and after an apparent recovery, the child develops headaches, difficulty in concentrating, poor memory, and dizziness, along with other somatic complaints that have no clear etiology. The MRI/CT scan and EEG are normal in this syndrome, although these tests are not needed to diagnose or evaluate for postconcussive syndrome. Treatment is supportive care. The use of antidepressant medication is sometimes helpful, as are psychostimulant medications. Although the educational program must be adjusted to meet the ability of the patient, the patient should not be allowed to either stop schooling or be kept at home during the recovery. A complete recovery occurs in weeks to months. Although there may be a psychological component to the illness, it is not a primary psychiatric condition. Delayed subdural hemorrhages are rare in children, but it is often not practical not to evaluate for this possibility given how poorly functional these children may be during the presenting days of the syndrome. Trauma-triggered migraine is a disorder in which the migraine, with a distinct beginning and end, is triggered by a very mild head trauma, such as bumping against a wall. Because of the social history surrounding the accident and the punishment, it is difficult to sort out what could be a conversion disorder in this case. Finally, seizures can occur after head injury, but there is nothing about the history to suggest that the patient is having epileptic events.

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Jul 5, 2016 | Posted by in CRITICAL CARE | Comments Off on Board Simulation: Neurology

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