Board Simulation: Hematology-Oncology
Michael Levien
L. Kate Gowans
QUESTIONS
1. The two most important prognostic indicators in neuroblastoma are as follows:
a) Age of the patient and stage of disease
b) Stage of disease and histopathology
c) Sex of the patient and catecholamine levels in a 24-hour urine collection
d) Presence of cerebellar ataxia and stage of disease
e) N-myc copies and age of the patient
f) None of the above
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Answer
The answer is a. The prognosis in neuroblastoma, as in other childhood malignancies, is directly proportional to the extent of disease at presentation. In early (stage I or II) disease, the tumor burden is much smaller than in stage III or IV disease, and the patient can be more easily treated with chemotherapy and surgical excision. The biology of neuroblastoma is highly unusual, with some early stage disease cured with surgery alone or surgery plus 2 to 4 months of chemotherapy. This is in comparison with higher-stage disease that requires surgery, intensive chemotherapy, autologous stem cell transplant, radiation therapy, and possibly biologic therapy. A unique feature of neuroblastoma is that it is an age-dependent prognosis. Children under the age of 1 year have a much better prognosis in all stages than do children past that age. This finding is thought to be related to a temporal loss of older infants’ ability to differentiate embryonic tissue. In a series of autopsies performed on 4-month-old fetuses, approximately 32% of the adrenal glands had neuroblastoma cells. These tissues differentiate or mature in most cases as the fetus reaches term. Histopathology (favorable vs. unfavorable) and number of N-myc oncogene copies are prognostic variables used in tailoring therapy, but outcome is correlated more strongly with age and stage. Gender, presence of ataxia, and 24-hour urine catecholamine levels are not significant predictors of prognosis, although patients presenting with ataxia tend to have lower stage disease at diagnosis.
Neuroblastoma is an excellent example of a childhood cancer with risk-directed or stratified therapy based on cell biology and risk factors present at diagnosis. Long-term survival along this spectrum of disease ranges from >95% to <25%.
2. In which of the following tumors is long-term control most likely to be achieved with currently available treatments?
a) Stage IV neuroblastoma in a 3-year-old
b) Stage IV rhabdomyosarcoma in a 2-year-old
c) Stage IV Hodgkin disease, nodular sclerosing type, in a 15-year-old
d) Stage IV osteosarcoma
e) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia in a 17-year-old adolescent
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Answer
The answer is c. Stage IV disease (metastases to viscera, such as the lungs) is a poor prognostic indicator in most malignancies of childhood. However, the treatment of Hodgkin disease has been very successful since the introduction of MOPP (nitrogen mustard, vincristine, procarbazine, and prednisone) and ABVD (Adriamycin, bleomycin, vinblastine, and dacarbazine) therapy in the 1960s and 1970s. This is also an exquisitely radiosensitive tumor. The judicious use of radiation therapy and chemotherapy has resulted in event-free survival exceeding 80% in patients with stage IV Hodgkin disease. Hodgkin disease therapy is evolving rapidly, as attempts are being made to decrease the intensity of chemotherapy and eliminate radiation therapy in patients with early complete response to chemotherapy. This aims to decrease the incidence of late effects and second malignancies in these survivors. All other stage IV malignancies
have a much lower chance for cure. (A patient with ALL would have the best survival rate at approximately 70%.)
have a much lower chance for cure. (A patient with ALL would have the best survival rate at approximately 70%.)
3. Generalized lymphadenopathy is a common presenting sign in which of the following groups of childhood malignancies?
a) Neuroblastoma, acute lymphoblastic leukemia, rhabdomyosarcoma
b) Osteosarcoma, Ewing sarcoma, Wilms tumor
c) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia, neuroblastoma, non-Hodgkin lymphoma
d) Acute nonlymphocytic leukemia, neuroblastoma, hepatoblastoma
e) Acute leukemia, Wilms tumor, retinoblastoma
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Answer
The answer is c. Wilms tumor, retinoblastoma, osteosarcoma, and Ewing sarcoma are usually brought to the attention of a physician early in their course because of the presenting features. Wilms tumor and hepatoblastoma present with an abdominal mass. Retinoblastoma presents with leukocoria and other visual problems. Ewing sarcoma and osteosarcoma present with progressive bone pain or palpable mass; rhabdomyosarcoma usually presents with a palpable mass. Peripheral adenopathy can be associated with these tumors in progressive, latestage, widely metastatic disease. Neuroblastoma often presents in early stages, but when the presentation is in stage IV, the patient may have widespread lymphadenopathy, and the presentation may be very similar to that of acute leukemia (i.e., generalized lymphadenopathy, bone pain, hepatosplenomegaly, petechiae, fever, easy bruising). All forms of lymphoma may present with significant lymphadenopathy.
4. A 4-year-old African-American boy is taking trimethoprim/ sulfamethoxazole for acute sinusitis. He develops fatigue, dark urine, and pallor. The most likely diagnosis is:
a) Hereditary spherocytosis (HS)
b) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
c) Hepatitis A
d) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
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Answer
The answer is b. This boy’s symptoms are consistent with a hemolytic process. Of the choices listed that are hemolytic anemias, glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is most consistent with this patient’s clinical presentation. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is an X-linked disorder characterized by hemolytic anemia. The incidence of this disorder is high in African Americans, Italians, Greeks, and individuals of Middle Eastern ancestry. The most likely inducers of hemolysis in individuals with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency include:
Fava beans
Sulfonamides
Trimethoprim
Nitrofurantoin
Chloramphenicol
Primaquine
Chloroquine
Quinacrine
Naphthalene
HS is more likely in a white patient and hemolysis tends not to be associated with drugs but rather with viral illnesses. Similarly, autoimmune hemolytic anemia usually develops spontaneously or following a viral illness.
5. Over a 3-day period, petechiae develop over the trunk and extremities of a previously healthy 5-year old. The parents state that he has been bruising easily for the past week. He has been afebrile. A complete blood cell count reveals the following values: white blood cell (WBC) count, 10,500/mm3 with 75% neutrophils and 20% lymphocytes; hemoglobin, 13 g/dL; mean corpuscular volume (MCV), 87 μ3; platelet count, 10,000/mm3. The most likely diagnosis is:
a) Henoch-Schönlein purpura
b) Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
c) Meningococcemia
d) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
e) Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
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Answer
The answer is b. This child presents with isolated thrombocytopenia but no fever or other clinical manifestations. Therefore, ITP is most likely. This often occurs after an antecedent viral infection (70% of cases) and is characterized by a deficiency of circulating platelets despite adequate numbers of megakaryocytes in the bone marrow. It is likely an immune-mediated process whereby the patient’s immune system mistakes a platelet antigen as foreign. The clinical picture is generally one of an acute onset 1 to 4 weeks after a viral illness. A generalized petechial rash and excessive bruising are common, and mucous membrane hemorrhage can be prominent. The children generally appear well, without lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly to suggest malignancy. Isolated thrombocytopenia (often dramatic, but usually between 10,000-50,000/mm3), with a normal WBC count and hemoglobin level, is the rule. Examination of the bone marrow, although not necessary for diagnosis, reveals normal granulocytic and erythrocytic series, with normal or increased numbers of megakaryocytes. The prognosis is excellent; 80% to 90% of patients will recover in weeks to a few months, with or without treatment. If ITP lasts greater than 6 months, it is termed chronic ITP and can be quite difficult to manage.
6. A 3-year-old girl was noted to have a hemoglobin level of 9.8 g/dL when she presented to the clinic 3 months ago. The MCV was 68 μ3, the mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH) 20.6 pg, and the red blood cell distribution
width (RDW) 11%. She was placed on ferrous sulfate (elemental iron 6 mg/kg per day). On the return visit 8 weeks later, the reticulocyte count is 1.8%, and the indices are unchanged. The peripheral smear is normal except for small hypochromic red blood cells (RBCs). These data are consistent with:
width (RDW) 11%. She was placed on ferrous sulfate (elemental iron 6 mg/kg per day). On the return visit 8 weeks later, the reticulocyte count is 1.8%, and the indices are unchanged. The peripheral smear is normal except for small hypochromic red blood cells (RBCs). These data are consistent with:
a) Thalassemia
b) Sickle cell trait
c) Sickle cell disease
d) Folate deficiency
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Answer
The answer is a. This child has a microcytic, hypochromic anemia with a low-to-normal RDW. Despite iron therapy, her reticulocyte count is low, and the peripheral smear shows small, hypochromic RBCs. These findings are most consistent with thalassemia. The causes of a microcytic, homogeneous anemia (low MCV, normal RDW) include thalassemia and anemia of chronic disease. Sickle cell disease causes a normocytic, heterogeneous anemia (increased RDW resulting from the presence of reticulocytes). Folate and vitamin B12 deficiencies cause a macrocytic anemia and are very unusual in children in developed countries. It is noteworthy that noncompliance with iron treatment should always be a consideration. Serum iron levels can be helpful in distinguishing thalassemia and iron deficiency, but they may coexist. The Mentzer index (MCV/RBC) can also be useful: <11 suggests thalassemia; >11 suggests iron deficiency.
7. Jaundice develops in a healthy white 7-year-old girl. The physical examination reveals splenomegaly. A complete blood cell count reveals the following values: WBC 7400/mm3, platelets 235,000/mm3, hemoglobin 9 g/dL; MCV 85 μ3; reticulocyte count 6%. The most likely diagnosis is:
a) ALL
b) Pyruvate kinase deficiency
c) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
d) HS
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Answer
The answer is d. Jaundice and splenomegaly, along with a normocytic anemia and reticulocytosis, are characteristic of a hemolytic anemia. In a previously healthy 7-yearold white child, HS would be the most likely diagnosis. HS is transmitted as an autosomal-dominant disorder, but the rate of new mutations is high. It is the most common congenital abnormality of the RBC membrane. Hemolytic disease in children is quite variable (baseline hemoglobin ranging from 9-11 g/dL); it can manifest early in life with severe hemolysis or may not manifest until late in life. Prolonged neonatal jaundice is a common historical finding, and splenomegaly and gallstones are common clinical features. Spherocytes (often microspherocytes) and reticulocytes on the blood smear are characteristic (causing increased mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration [MCHC] and RDW), and the findings of splenomegaly, reticulocytosis, and spherocytosis are often diagnostic. The osmotic fragility test confirms the presence of spherocytes in the blood. This test incubates patient RBCs with varying concentrations of saline, and the patient’s cells will burst quickly, not withstanding osmotic stress as would a normal biconcave RBC. Splenectomy eliminates most of the hemolysis associated with this disorder.
8. Which of the following sets of labs is consistent with tumor lysis syndrome?
a) ↑K, ↑PO4, ↑Ca, ↑uric acid
b) ↓K, ↑PO4, ↓Ca, ↑uric acid
c) ↑K, ↑PO4, ↓Ca, ↓uric acid
d) ↑K, ↑PO4, ↓Ca, ↑uric acid
e) None of the above
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Answer
The answer is d. Tumor lysis syndrome is an acute metabolic derangement caused by the rapid turnover of dying cancer cells. This can happen spontaneously or as a result of initiation of chemotherapy. As intracellular contents are released, the resulting classic laboratory abnormalities are elevated potassium, phosphorus, and uric acid, and decreased calcium. Renal function may deteriorate quickly, necessitating dialysis if electrolytes are not managed aggressively. Management includes frequent monitoring of laboratory values, aggressive intravenous hydration that does not include potassium, and allopurinol (xanthine-oxidase inhibitor), which lowers the production of uric acid. Calcium should be replaced quickly, and many measures can be used to decrease a rising potassium (Lasix, glucose plus insulin, potassium binders). A nephrologist and pediatric intensivist should be notified of any patient who presents at high risk for tumor lysis syndrome. Burkitt lymphoma is the pediatric diagnosis most closely associated with this oncologic emergency. Acute leukemias that present with a high tumor burden (high WBC count with or without massive organomegaly) are also at risk. Solid tumors do not carry significant risk of tumor lysis syndrome.